• 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
 invariant ?? tommy1729 Ultimate Fellow Posts: 1,370 Threads: 335 Joined: Feb 2009 06/14/2009, 09:15 PM (06/14/2009, 04:23 PM)bo198214 Wrote: (06/12/2009, 12:30 PM)tommy1729 Wrote: if F(g(x)) = F(x) for all x. and f(f(x)) = F(x) then f(g(x)) = f(x) for all x ?!? half - exp (x) = half - exp (x + 2pi i ) ?!? yes do all our known REAL solutions to f(f(x)) = exp(x) satisfy that* too ? ( * f(x) = f(x + 2pi i) ) in particular , does andrew robbins solution satisfy that ? regards tommy1729 ps : yes i like andrew robbins approach , sorry for the " discrimination " :p i love you all im currently considering andrew's solution as " the best " , however it might be equal to many many other people's solutions including my own. i think i can prove it , but im currently distracted with number theory research , so i wont go into detail ... i dont know if i will have much time for tetration in the nearby future , but i will keep reading this forum. im wondering , any other number theory freaks here ? regards tommy1729 « Next Oldest | Next Newest »

 Messages In This Thread invariant ?? - by tommy1729 - 06/12/2009, 12:30 PM RE: invariant ?? - by bo198214 - 06/14/2009, 04:23 PM RE: invariant ?? - by tommy1729 - 06/14/2009, 09:15 PM

 Possibly Related Threads... Thread Author Replies Views Last Post partial invariant equations ? tommy1729 0 2,005 03/16/2013, 12:32 AM Last Post: tommy1729

Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)