(09/17/2009, 09:08 AM)bo198214 Wrote:... here:(09/17/2009, 07:43 AM)Gottfried Wrote: If we have a base 1<b<=exp(exp(-1)) the progression of consecutive f°k(0) approaches zero, because the values approach a limit, so the inner sums should be convergent.Not sure whether I understand you. Where does the iteration of f occur in the inner sum?

there is the f°(n-1)(0) in the inner sum, where n is the running index

--- well, upps, or was possibly the n-1'th derivative meant??

Gottfried

Gottfried Helms, Kassel