11/27/2017, 06:33 PM
(This post was last modified: 11/28/2017, 01:08 PM by Xorter.
Edit Reason: grammar
)
Okay, I revised the formula, and I guess my intuation mislead me, maybe.
But I have a good news, too.
Maybe this formula will bring the trueth:
lim h->infinity (log(f(x+1/h)^^N)/log(f(x)^^N))^^h = lim h->infinity ((log(f(x+1/h))/log(f(x)))^^h)^^N
Do you think it can be correct?
But I have a good news, too.
Maybe this formula will bring the trueth:
lim h->infinity (log(f(x+1/h)^^N)/log(f(x)^^N))^^h = lim h->infinity ((log(f(x+1/h))/log(f(x)))^^h)^^N
Do you think it can be correct?
Xorter Unizo