05/29/2011, 02:06 AM
Sure it is, it's a limit that's related to tetration, though a slight variant of what your original inquisition was. It's related to half-iterates of e, and is a generalization of the original limit in question \( \lim_{n\to\infty} (1 + \frac{1}{n})^n = e \)I was just posting it because it popped into my head as I was reading through your thread.
But, I get your point. I wasn't really contributing to your question. It's just that I couldn't think of anything to contribute from that angle, but I still read the whole thread and wanted to post something. Didn't mean to appear off-topic and shrewd
But, I get your point. I wasn't really contributing to your question. It's just that I couldn't think of anything to contribute from that angle, but I still read the whole thread and wanted to post something. Didn't mean to appear off-topic and shrewd