05/26/2010, 06:04 PM

(05/26/2010, 04:55 PM)bo198214 Wrote: By some incidence I just found the article:

Barrow, D. F. (1936). Infinite exponentials. Amer. math. Monthly, 43, 150–160.

He states there in Theorem 7:

The infinite exponential , where are all positive or 0,

(a) will converge if

(b) will diverge if .

and i assume it diverges if > or < is replaced by =.

since we dont have an upper bound.