I have to add : psuedounivalent must be a uniqueness criterion but without existance proven.
This follows from the earlier proven fact that sexp(z) analytic for Re(z)>0 is already a uniqueness criterion.
Hence the question becomes : is this analytic function sexp(z) pseudounivalent ?
We know that sexp(z) has singularies. In the thread " the fermat superfunction " I noticed that most entire functions are not pseudounivalent. The follows from the nonbijective nature of most entire functions and the many amount of fixpoints/zero's of most entire functions.
This motivated me to wonder about functions that are not entire hence returning to sexp(z).
Naturally I also wonder about other superfunctions ofcourse.
I do not recall the exact location of all previous posts regarding these issues but on MSE mick made a related post.
The case which mick answer is actually about exp, but the same applies by analogue to sexp for Re(z)>0.
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/...-equations
Btw his score of -5 is rediculous.
This reminds me of the reasons why I am not or no longer on places such as MSE , sci.math, wiki etc.
Tetration forum rules
But other tend not too imho.
regards
tommy1729