05/03/2009, 09:33 AM

(05/03/2009, 08:49 AM)andydude Wrote: So is X the inverse of the Schroeder function?Actually I am also somewhat puzzled.

I would suggest to always use variable for the base.

In this terminology you wrote:

Now is the fixed point which I denoted with .

And is the derivative at the fixed point which I denoted with .

So your formula is:

while my formula is:

Your coefficients are polynomials in , while my coefficients are rational functions in and also use . Though both must be equal up to translation. *headscratch*