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06/07/2011, 11:19 AM
(This post was last modified: 06/07/2011, 11:22 AM by bo198214.)

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im sorry

i do not wish to be annoying.

but this does not seem like a new idea.

in fact , it seems mine :

quoting from my own posts :

thread tid 474 posted on 7/11/10 title : tommy's uniqueness conditions

post nr 1 , thread started by me :

" i partially already mentioned the first uniqueness condition before :

d f^n / d x^n sexp(slog(x) + k) > 0 for all positive integer n and all positive real k.

and probably ( i.e. if im not mistaken because of the local heat wave )this is true if and only if the following is true :

( i.e. i assume " equivalent to " )

d f^n / d k^n sexp(slog(x) + k) > 0 for all positive integer n and all positive real k. "

thread tid 484 posted on 7/29/10 title : final uniqueness condition ... probably

post nr 1 , thread started by me :

" d f^2 / d x^2 sexp(slog(x) + k) > 0 for all real x and all real k with 0 < k < Q where Q is any nonzero positive real.

assuming sexp resp slog to be C^2 of course , i 'believe' this condition implies analytic as well.

is this equivalent to d f^2 / d x^2 sexp(x) > 0 for all positive real x ?

i assume because of the substitution x = sexp(y) "

if you combine those two posts , i find it pretty clear that the idea has occured to me first.

notice that exp^[t](x) is equivalent to sexp(slog(x) + t)

despite one of those threads and this one contains mistakes , that idea is clearly mine. ( i even did a search on this forum too see if anyone else was first and looked on sci.math , mathoverflow , google and some books )

i believe my (tommy's) 2sinh method satisfies these conditions and hence it is conjectured for bases > sqrt(e) [ thus including e like mike ]

( yes these posts were made after i posted the 2sinh method - which is also by me and in fact way older than this forum ( i found it in my teenage notes ) and i mentioned that too )

thus for bases > sqrt(e) =>

d f^n / d x^n sexp(slog(x) + k) > 0 for all positive integer n and all positive real k.

d f^n / d k^n sexp(slog(x) + k) > 0 for all positive integer n and all positive real k.

d f^2 / d x^2 sexp(slog(x) + k) > 0 for all real x and all real k with 0 < k < Q where Q is any nonzero positive real.

are all ideas of me , somewhat sloppy ( i could have written positive real k e.g. ) but mine.

so basicly my opinion is that this conjecture of mike is actually a rewording of some of my conjectures.

regards

tommy1729

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(06/07/2011, 09:02 PM)tommy1729 Wrote: so basicly my opinion is that this conjecture of mike is actually a rewording of some of my conjectures.

Tommy, keep cool.

I dont think Mike did steal that idea from you, but discovered it independently.

And then I never saw people arguing about whom had a *conjecture* first.

I rather think when someone else has the same conjecture then it could attract more investigation and in the end leading to a proof or disproof of the conjecture.

Which is imho is the interesting part: the proof, or the answer to the question.

I mean to ask questions/to utter conjectures is easy.

To ask good (with respect to fertility in the field) questions is a bit more difficult.

And really tough work is finding proofs/solving open problems.

So if you still consider it utmost important who first asked a question/uttered a conjecture, I have no problems attributing it to you (on this forum).

But much more I would like to attribute the first proof of that conjecture to you.

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im not claiming mike stole it.

although i find it offense of members not admitting i was first.

its not a genius idea , but it might be an important one , so my honor matters imho.

right questions are almost as important as proofs.

im happy you give me credit afterall.

regards

tommy1729