09/08/2014, 11:03 AM

I looked at sheldon's 2nd answer and noticed what partially was the motivation for one of my last questions :

the plot of fake ln(x) resembles integral (1 - exp(-x) ) / x !

It was "Visually Obvious" from the psuedoperiodicity and the growth rate for Re(z) << 0.

I havent considered the signs of the derivatives of integral (1 - exp(-x) / x yet.

Maybe that explains alot.

regards

tommy1729

the plot of fake ln(x) resembles integral (1 - exp(-x) ) / x !

It was "Visually Obvious" from the psuedoperiodicity and the growth rate for Re(z) << 0.

I havent considered the signs of the derivatives of integral (1 - exp(-x) / x yet.

Maybe that explains alot.

regards

tommy1729